How? Did Yeshua which translates to Joshua became Jesus.
Before we begin it is important to note that it is the person of Jesus, Isesus or Yeshua that saves and not the name in itself.
Mat 1:21 KJV And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now to the surprise of many the letter J didn't exist until many years later. We see the earliest English Bibles without it. Example:
Mat 1:21 Wycliffe And she shal bere a sone, and thou shalt clepe his name hesus; for he schal make his puple saaf fro her synnes.
Mat 1:21 Coverdale She shall brynge forth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall saue his people from their synnes.
Mat 1:21 Bishops She shall bryng foorth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus: for he shall saue his people from their sinnes.
Mat 1:21 Tyndale She shall brynge forthe a sonne and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall save his peple from their synnes.
So the Bible use to say Iesus which is the Greek word for Jesus.
The king James Bible wrongly interprets in one Passage where it was to be Joshua it states Jesus.
Heb 4:8 KJV For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
Yeshua is the Hebrew, Iesus is the Greek which both means salvation . Which our Greek New Testament has Iesus expect for the Aramaic translation has Yeshua depending one option which one came first .
We know from the earliest writing of the early church fathers that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew and was translated into other languages.
Fragments of Papias {“This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark; but with regard to Matthew he has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could.”}
Eusebius Church History 3.39.16
“But concerning Matthew he writes as follows: ‘So then Matthew wrote the oracles in the Hebrew language, and every one interpreted them as he was able.’”
Matthew is the only gospel writing we can argue that was written in Hebrew , there is no evidence of the other writings in the New Testament was written in Hebrew. So Matthew would have used the word Yeshua and the rest would have used the word Iesus. So those two names were use around the same time .So to answer the question how it happened ? The answer is different languages one Hebrew and the other Greek written around the same time.
Before we begin it is important to note that it is the person of Jesus, Isesus or Yeshua that saves and not the name in itself.
Mat 1:21 KJV And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now to the surprise of many the letter J didn't exist until many years later. We see the earliest English Bibles without it. Example:
Mat 1:21 Wycliffe And she shal bere a sone, and thou shalt clepe his name hesus; for he schal make his puple saaf fro her synnes.
Mat 1:21 Coverdale She shall brynge forth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall saue his people from their synnes.
Mat 1:21 Bishops She shall bryng foorth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus: for he shall saue his people from their sinnes.
Mat 1:21 Tyndale She shall brynge forthe a sonne and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall save his peple from their synnes.
So the Bible use to say Iesus which is the Greek word for Jesus.
The king James Bible wrongly interprets in one Passage where it was to be Joshua it states Jesus.
Heb 4:8 KJV For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
Yeshua is the Hebrew, Iesus is the Greek which both means salvation . Which our Greek New Testament has Iesus expect for the Aramaic translation has Yeshua depending one option which one came first .
We know from the earliest writing of the early church fathers that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew and was translated into other languages.
Fragments of Papias {“This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark; but with regard to Matthew he has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could.”}
Eusebius Church History 3.39.16
“But concerning Matthew he writes as follows: ‘So then Matthew wrote the oracles in the Hebrew language, and every one interpreted them as he was able.’”
Matthew is the only gospel writing we can argue that was written in Hebrew , there is no evidence of the other writings in the New Testament was written in Hebrew. So Matthew would have used the word Yeshua and the rest would have used the word Iesus. So those two names were use around the same time .So to answer the question how it happened ? The answer is different languages one Hebrew and the other Greek written around the same time.
How? Did Yeshua which translates to Joshua became Jesus.
Before we begin it is important to note that it is the person of Jesus, Isesus or Yeshua that saves and not the name in itself.
Mat 1:21 KJV And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now to the surprise of many the letter J didn't exist until many years later. We see the earliest English Bibles without it. Example:
Mat 1:21 Wycliffe And she shal bere a sone, and thou shalt clepe his name hesus; for he schal make his puple saaf fro her synnes.
Mat 1:21 Coverdale She shall brynge forth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall saue his people from their synnes.
Mat 1:21 Bishops She shall bryng foorth a sonne, and thou shalt call his name Iesus: for he shall saue his people from their sinnes.
Mat 1:21 Tyndale She shall brynge forthe a sonne and thou shalt call his name Iesus. For he shall save his peple from their synnes.
So the Bible use to say Iesus which is the Greek word for Jesus.
The king James Bible wrongly interprets in one Passage where it was to be Joshua it states Jesus.
Heb 4:8 KJV For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
Yeshua is the Hebrew, Iesus is the Greek which both means salvation . Which our Greek New Testament has Iesus expect for the Aramaic translation has Yeshua depending one option which one came first .
We know from the earliest writing of the early church fathers that Matthew wrote his Gospel in Hebrew and was translated into other languages.
Fragments of Papias {“This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark; but with regard to Matthew he has made the following statements]: Matthew put together the oracles [of the Lord] in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as best he could.”}
Eusebius Church History 3.39.16
“But concerning Matthew he writes as follows: ‘So then Matthew wrote the oracles in the Hebrew language, and every one interpreted them as he was able.’”
Matthew is the only gospel writing we can argue that was written in Hebrew , there is no evidence of the other writings in the New Testament was written in Hebrew. So Matthew would have used the word Yeshua and the rest would have used the word Iesus. So those two names were use around the same time .So to answer the question how it happened ? The answer is different languages one Hebrew and the other Greek written around the same time.
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