𝗗𝗼𝗲𝘀 𝗠𝗮𝘁𝘁 𝟮𝟰:𝟭𝟰 𝗿𝗲𝗳𝗲𝗿 𝘁𝗼 𝗥𝗲𝘃 𝟭𝟰:𝟲?

𝗜 𝗵𝗮𝘃𝗲 𝗮 𝗾𝘂𝗲𝘀𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻 𝗽𝗹𝗲𝗮𝘀𝗲:

In Matthew 24:14 Jesus says: "𝘈𝘯𝘥 𝘵𝘩𝘪𝘴 𝘨𝘰𝘴𝘱𝘦𝘭 𝘰𝘧 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘬𝘪𝘯𝘨𝘥𝘰𝘮 𝘴𝘩𝘢𝘭𝘭 𝘣𝘦 𝘱𝘳𝘦𝘢𝘤𝘩𝘦𝘥 𝘪𝘯 𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙬𝙤𝙧𝙡𝙙 𝘧𝘰𝘳 𝘢 𝘸𝘪𝘵𝘯𝘦𝘴𝘴 𝘶𝘯𝘵𝘰 𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙣𝙖𝙩𝙞𝙤𝙣𝙨; 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝙩𝙝𝙚𝙣 𝙨𝙝𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙚𝙣𝙙 𝙘𝙤𝙢𝙚"

Historically, this verse has been taught to infer that the responsibility to fulfill the Great Commission rests on the Church - which has led to any number of evangelical endeavors, including missionaries being sent to the furthest corners of the earth to make disciples and spread the good news of the Gospel.

According to various sources, this verse implies that the the Gospel will be preached to people of 𝙚𝙫𝙚𝙧𝙮 𝙡𝙖𝙣𝙜𝙪𝙖𝙜𝙚.

Currently it is estimated that there are 7,391 languages in use in the world and by 2025 the Bible has been translated into 4,007 of those languages.

Earlier estimates suggested that the Bible would be available in ALL languages by 2033, but with the advent of A.I. it is conceivable that this could be accomplished sooner.

So - from a logistical point of view, it seems that the gospel will not reach all the nations of the earth until some time in the future - and even then, the problem of certain governments around the world forbidding or banning the distribution of Bibles to their people imply further problems and delays.

It is also implies that the most important person alive (today) would be the 𝗹𝗮𝘀𝘁 one to hear and respond to the Gospel message, as this would precipitate God's physical intervention into human history.

However, my question centres around the word '𝙚𝙣𝙙' used in verse 14.

This word is open to interpretation as '𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙚𝙣𝙙' could signify a number of different events:

• the Rapture (for those who support a pre-tribulation doctrine)

• the Second Coming of Jesus Christ

• the beginning of the Millennium

• the end of this world as we know it

• the beginning of eternity in the new heavans and the new earth

• etc

The reason I have an issue with most of the interpretations of verse 14 is the following:

In 𝗥𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗹𝗮𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻 𝟭𝟰:𝟲, John describes seeing "another angel flying in midheaven with the 𝗲𝘁𝗲𝗿𝗻𝗮𝗹 𝗴𝗼𝘀𝗽𝗲𝗹 to proclaim to those who dwell on the earth, to 𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗿𝘆 𝗻𝗮𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻, 𝘁𝗿𝗶𝗯𝗲, 𝘁𝗼𝗻𝗴𝘂𝗲, and 𝗽𝗲𝗼𝗽𝗹𝗲.'

This angel is depicted as flying across the heavens, carrying a message of everlasting good news 𝗶𝗻𝘁𝗲𝗻𝗱𝗲𝗱 𝗳𝗼𝗿 𝗮𝗹𝗹 𝗵𝘂𝗺𝗮𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆, emphasizing a 𝗳𝗶𝗻𝗮𝗹 𝗼𝗽𝗽𝗼𝗿𝘁𝘂𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆 for people to turn to God.

The proclamation includes a call to "𝘧𝘦𝘢𝘳 𝘎𝘰𝘥 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘨𝘪𝘷𝘦 𝘏𝘪𝘮 𝘨𝘭𝘰𝘳𝘺, 𝘣𝘦𝘤𝘢𝘶𝘴𝘦 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘩𝘰𝘶𝘳 𝘰𝘧 𝘏𝘪𝘴 𝘫𝘶𝘥𝘨𝘮𝘦𝘯𝘵 𝘪𝘴 𝘤𝘰𝘮𝘦; 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘸𝘰𝘳𝘴𝘩𝘪𝘱 𝘏𝘪𝘮 𝘞𝘩𝘰 𝘮𝘢𝘥𝘦 𝘩𝘦𝘢𝘷𝘦𝘯 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘦𝘢𝘳𝘵𝘩, 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘴𝘦𝘢 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘧𝘰𝘶𝘯𝘵𝘢𝘪𝘯𝘴 𝘰𝘧 𝘸𝘢𝘵𝘦𝘳𝘴".

The verse underscores the universal scope of the gospel message, and states that this would reach 𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗿𝘆 𝗲𝘁𝗵𝗻𝗶𝗰 𝗴𝗿𝗼𝘂𝗽 𝗮𝗻𝗱 𝗹𝗶𝗻𝗴𝘂𝗶𝘀𝘁𝗶𝗰 𝗰𝗼𝗺𝗺𝘂𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆 𝗼𝗻 𝗘𝗮𝗿𝘁𝗵.

Now this particular event takes place after the seven seal and trumpet judgements and prior to the outpouring of the seven bowl judgements (the fall of Babylon and the rise of the beast, etc) - approximately midway into the 7 year Great Tribulation.

This single event described in Rev 14:6 seems to render all preceding human efforts to spread the Gospel via conventional means, moot - because this divine event 𝘄𝗶𝗹𝗹 reach every living person on earth, in their own language, and the full import of this message will be clearly and unequivocally understood despite any institutionalized impediments.

So - my question is simply: does Matthew 24:14 actually refer to the events in Revelation 14:6?
𝗗𝗼𝗲𝘀 𝗠𝗮𝘁𝘁 𝟮𝟰:𝟭𝟰 𝗿𝗲𝗳𝗲𝗿 𝘁𝗼 𝗥𝗲𝘃 𝟭𝟰:𝟲? 𝗜 𝗵𝗮𝘃𝗲 𝗮 𝗾𝘂𝗲𝘀𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻 𝗽𝗹𝗲𝗮𝘀𝗲: In Matthew 24:14 Jesus says: "𝘈𝘯𝘥 𝘵𝘩𝘪𝘴 𝘨𝘰𝘴𝘱𝘦𝘭 𝘰𝘧 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘬𝘪𝘯𝘨𝘥𝘰𝘮 𝘴𝘩𝘢𝘭𝘭 𝘣𝘦 𝘱𝘳𝘦𝘢𝘤𝘩𝘦𝘥 𝘪𝘯 𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙬𝙤𝙧𝙡𝙙 𝘧𝘰𝘳 𝘢 𝘸𝘪𝘵𝘯𝘦𝘴𝘴 𝘶𝘯𝘵𝘰 𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙣𝙖𝙩𝙞𝙤𝙣𝙨; 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝙩𝙝𝙚𝙣 𝙨𝙝𝙖𝙡𝙡 𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙚𝙣𝙙 𝙘𝙤𝙢𝙚" Historically, this verse has been taught to infer that the responsibility to fulfill the Great Commission rests on the Church - which has led to any number of evangelical endeavors, including missionaries being sent to the furthest corners of the earth to make disciples and spread the good news of the Gospel. According to various sources, this verse implies that the the Gospel will be preached to people of 𝙚𝙫𝙚𝙧𝙮 𝙡𝙖𝙣𝙜𝙪𝙖𝙜𝙚. Currently it is estimated that there are 7,391 languages in use in the world and by 2025 the Bible has been translated into 4,007 of those languages. Earlier estimates suggested that the Bible would be available in ALL languages by 2033, but with the advent of A.I. it is conceivable that this could be accomplished sooner. So - from a logistical point of view, it seems that the gospel will not reach all the nations of the earth until some time in the future - and even then, the problem of certain governments around the world forbidding or banning the distribution of Bibles to their people imply further problems and delays. It is also implies that the most important person alive (today) would be the 𝗹𝗮𝘀𝘁 one to hear and respond to the Gospel message, as this would precipitate God's physical intervention into human history. However, my question centres around the word '𝙚𝙣𝙙' used in verse 14. This word is open to interpretation as '𝙩𝙝𝙚 𝙚𝙣𝙙' could signify a number of different events: • the Rapture (for those who support a pre-tribulation doctrine) • the Second Coming of Jesus Christ • the beginning of the Millennium • the end of this world as we know it • the beginning of eternity in the new heavans and the new earth • etc The reason I have an issue with most of the interpretations of verse 14 is the following: In 𝗥𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗹𝗮𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻 𝟭𝟰:𝟲, John describes seeing "another angel flying in midheaven with the 𝗲𝘁𝗲𝗿𝗻𝗮𝗹 𝗴𝗼𝘀𝗽𝗲𝗹 to proclaim to those who dwell on the earth, to 𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗿𝘆 𝗻𝗮𝘁𝗶𝗼𝗻, 𝘁𝗿𝗶𝗯𝗲, 𝘁𝗼𝗻𝗴𝘂𝗲, and 𝗽𝗲𝗼𝗽𝗹𝗲.' This angel is depicted as flying across the heavens, carrying a message of everlasting good news 𝗶𝗻𝘁𝗲𝗻𝗱𝗲𝗱 𝗳𝗼𝗿 𝗮𝗹𝗹 𝗵𝘂𝗺𝗮𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆, emphasizing a 𝗳𝗶𝗻𝗮𝗹 𝗼𝗽𝗽𝗼𝗿𝘁𝘂𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆 for people to turn to God. The proclamation includes a call to "𝘧𝘦𝘢𝘳 𝘎𝘰𝘥 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘨𝘪𝘷𝘦 𝘏𝘪𝘮 𝘨𝘭𝘰𝘳𝘺, 𝘣𝘦𝘤𝘢𝘶𝘴𝘦 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘩𝘰𝘶𝘳 𝘰𝘧 𝘏𝘪𝘴 𝘫𝘶𝘥𝘨𝘮𝘦𝘯𝘵 𝘪𝘴 𝘤𝘰𝘮𝘦; 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘸𝘰𝘳𝘴𝘩𝘪𝘱 𝘏𝘪𝘮 𝘞𝘩𝘰 𝘮𝘢𝘥𝘦 𝘩𝘦𝘢𝘷𝘦𝘯 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘦𝘢𝘳𝘵𝘩, 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘴𝘦𝘢 𝘢𝘯𝘥 𝘵𝘩𝘦 𝘧𝘰𝘶𝘯𝘵𝘢𝘪𝘯𝘴 𝘰𝘧 𝘸𝘢𝘵𝘦𝘳𝘴". The verse underscores the universal scope of the gospel message, and states that this would reach 𝗲𝘃𝗲𝗿𝘆 𝗲𝘁𝗵𝗻𝗶𝗰 𝗴𝗿𝗼𝘂𝗽 𝗮𝗻𝗱 𝗹𝗶𝗻𝗴𝘂𝗶𝘀𝘁𝗶𝗰 𝗰𝗼𝗺𝗺𝘂𝗻𝗶𝘁𝘆 𝗼𝗻 𝗘𝗮𝗿𝘁𝗵. Now this particular event takes place after the seven seal and trumpet judgements and prior to the outpouring of the seven bowl judgements (the fall of Babylon and the rise of the beast, etc) - approximately midway into the 7 year Great Tribulation. This single event described in Rev 14:6 seems to render all preceding human efforts to spread the Gospel via conventional means, moot - because this divine event 𝘄𝗶𝗹𝗹 reach every living person on earth, in their own language, and the full import of this message will be clearly and unequivocally understood despite any institutionalized impediments. So - my question is simply: does Matthew 24:14 actually refer to the events in Revelation 14:6?
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